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Posted
1 hour ago, RETAC21 said:

You have serious reading comprehension problems. 

At this point I will stop wasting my time with your nonsense and just caution the unwary of your utter ignorance of the subject matter.

A more productive use of this space, for sure.

Put him on ignore; you'll live a better life.

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Posted
17 hours ago, glenn239 said:

I give your rage quit a 6 out of 10.  You didn't know the French navy had a big mutiny in 1919, did you?   

Oh, not rage quit, I knew about the mutiny and the British strikes, and you also forgot the RN mutimy: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Royal_Navy_mutiny_of_1919

The point you miss (quelle surprise...) is that they happen because this was a new war, not because there was any unwillingness to fight Germany. The main protest was that soldiers wanted to be demobilised because victory over Germany had been achieved.

I just realised that I have forgotten more stuff about WW1 than you ever learned, and that it's quite pointless trying to educate he who does not want to be educated. 

Posted
20 hours ago, RichTO90 said:

Put him on ignore; you'll live a better life.

Tempting, but he doesn't get a rise of me (unlike others) as I realise there's no malice, just deep, very deep ignorance and a willingness to support any dictator.

Posted (edited)
1 hour ago, RETAC21 said:

One point  I might attach more important to than you do, is that they happen because this was a new war, not because there was any unwillingness to fight Germany. The main protest was that soldiers wanted to be demobilised because victory over Germany had been achieved.

I modified the text of your post to be like how I would have typed the paragraph.  

The fact that the French and British militaries mutinied in 1919 at all is proof that whatever reserve or well of tolerance that these civilian armies had for war was reaching a limit.   Would the French army have mutinied in 1919 or 1920 with the Germans deep in France?  After the reforms of 1917, probably not.  Would the French army have mutinied with the Americans neutral, the Germans now out of France and back in Germany, and the French army now bloodymindedly trying to invade Germany in 1919 to huge casualties?  Probably.  

 

Edited by glenn239
Posted
9 minutes ago, glenn239 said:

I modified the text of your post to be like how I would have typed the paragraph.  

The fact that the French and British militaries mutinied in 1919 at all is proof that whatever reserve or well of tolerance that these civilian armies had for war was reaching a limit.   Would the French army have mutinied in 1919 or 1920 with the Germans deep in France?  After the reforms of 1917, probably not.  Would the French army have mutinied with the Americans neutral, the Germans now out of France and back in Germany, and the French army now bloodymindedly trying to invade Germany in 1919 to huge casualties?  Probably.  

 

Er, no? you are so dishonest than rather than accept you were wrong now you mis-quote me to "prove" your point?

Posted

It is interesting to look at the economic factors, while the US depended on Allied weapons for the most part, the Allies depended on US food and non-weapon aid.  Plus US troops were the shot in the arm the allies needed, since after reading Hasting's book on the first World War, it looks like all sides were pretty much tapped out, and I suspect it would have ended with a whimper rather than a bang.  I also suspect based on the comments here, that Germany was a powder keg just looking for the right spark.  

Posted

Just a quick point, the Europeans were not dependant on US agriculture or most RAW materials, in the sense they had no other source of supply. North America's great advantage wasn't in supply, but location and from that shipping efficiency. South America, Australasia and bits of Africa could supply the goods. But the higher cost in ton miles of shipping, would have meant fewer available to move other cargoes to other places.  

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